Official Quant thread for CAT 2013

@Jackson1 said:
if a,b,c and d can be 0 so there is a direct formula for that- C(7+4-1,4-1)=C(10,3)here 7 is sum of all the numbers and 4 is the number of variables..
yaar need little more explanation because earlier we deduct 3 out of 10 and formulated eqn a+b+c+d=7 then we select 3 stating that b and c cant be zero .i know i am lacking some basic concept kindly tell how to formulate these equations
@Logrhythm said:
bhai konsa question hai?? muje bhi do....yahan bore ho gaye hai...
#18421 already soved...

@raopradeep
ok so if b and c cant be zero then just add 1 in both b and c like this-
a+(b+1)+(c+1)+d=7
a+b+c+d=5
Now apply the same formula when any variable can be 0. Here if b or c comes 0 then also it will be treated as 1.
so ans would be. C(5+4-1,4-1)=C(8,3).
if still find any problem then let me know...
@vbhvgupta said:
#18421 already soved...
bada tough question puch liya...

tum log to CL & TIME main hi lad pade.... aage aur bi question aane h... unhe solve karo..
@Jackson1 thanks bro :)

@Jackson1 thanks bro :)

The efiiciency of a man is reduced by half every 2 hrs. At max efficiency he could have completed the job in 150 hrs. How many hrs does it take him to complete the job, if his efficiency becomes max after every 8hrs and then reduced as mentioned above?

@vbhvgupta said:
The efiiciency of a man is reduced by half every 2 hrs. At max efficiency he could have completed the job in 150 hrs. How many hrs does it take him to complete the job, if his efficiency becomes max after every 8hrs and then reduced as mentioned above?

say his does 8 units of work in first 2 hrs so
2-4 hrs: 4 units
4-6 hrs: 2 units
6-8 hrs: 1 units

so in 8 hrs he does (8+4+2+1) = 15 units

Total work = 150*4

hence time taken = (150*(8/2))/15 = 40 blocks of 8 hrs.

hence 40*8 = 320 hrs.


ATDH.
@vbhvgupta said:
The efiiciency of a man is reduced by half every 2 hrs. At max efficiency he could have completed the job in 150 hrs. How many hrs does it take him to complete the job, if his efficiency becomes max after every 8hrs and then reduced as mentioned above?

Lagta hai vaibhav bahi time and work pe master degrre kar rahe hai
Let the maximum efficiency be 16x
so total work = 150*16x = 2400x

now in first 8 hours he works with efficiencies 16x 8x 4x and 2x
so 30x of work is done in 8 hours
so to do 2100x he would require 2400/30 = 80 hours
EDITED :
this 80 hours contains 4 two hr gap so
80*4 = 320 hrs
@vbhvgupta : to err is human : D
@anytomdickandhary said:
say his does 8 units of work in first 2 hrs so2-4 hrs: 4 units4-6 hrs: 2 units6-8 hrs: 1 unitsso in 8 hrs he does (8+4+2+1) = 15 unitsTotal work = 150*8hence time taken = (150*8)/15 = 80 hrs.ATDH.
OA 320
@chandrakant.k said:
Lagta hai vaibhav bahi time and work pe master degrre kar rahe hai Let the maximum efficiency be 16x so total work = 150*16x = 2100xnow in first 8 hours he works with efficiencies 16x 8x 4x and 2xso 30x of work is done in 8 hoursso to do 2100x he would require 2100/30 = 70 hours???
bhai time material se hai ans is 320..if u want I ll share the solution.
@vbhvgupta said:
bhai time material ans is 320..if u want I ll share the solution.
😲 😲 yes pls. Now that ATDH sir has given the solution as 80 it has to be 80. by the way please share
@chandrakant.k said:
yes pls. Now that ATDH sir has given the solution as 80 it has to be 80. by the way please share
wait will post

bhai mujhe nahi aaya..explain kar dena.....
@vbhvgupta said:
The efiiciency of a man is reduced by half every 2 hrs. At max efficiency he could have completed the job in 150 hrs. How many hrs does it take him to complete the job, if his efficiency becomes max after every 8hrs and then reduced as mentioned above?
work done in first 8 hours
2(W/150 +W/300 +W/600 +W/1200)
2W/150(1+1/2+1/4+1/8)
2W/150(15/8)
W/40
40 times he has to do the same work
40*8=320
@vbhvgupta said:
OA 320
.
At maximum efficiency he finishes the work in 150 hrs that means amount of work done in 2 hrs at maximum efficiency = 1/75.
For next two hours he finishes = 1/150 amount of work.
In next two hours he does = 1/300 amount of work and
in another two hours he finishs = 1/600 amount of work.
That means in total 8 hrs he does = (1/75)(1 + 0.5 + 0.25 + 0.125) = 1.875/75 = 1/40 amount of work.
As he regains his maximum efficiency after every 8 hrs, he does the same amount of work in every 8 hrs span.
8*40=320 hrs
@vbhvgupta said:
OA 320
yes, it has to be 320. I forgot to multiply it by 4. Have re-written the solution. Please refer to the same.

Rather than taking fractions and adding it is quicker to deal with whole nos. and can be done almost verbally.

ATDH.

hey cn anyone xpln hw to find 100 in base 6 ?? plz

@dream_IIMA said:
hey cn anyone xpln hw to find 100 in base 6 ?? plz
divide 100 by 6 😁 and write all the remainders

6|100
6|16 - 4(remainder)
6|2-4(reminder)

244 is the number
@dream_IIMA said:
hey cn anyone xpln hw to find 100 in base 6 ?? plz
100/6 = 16 with remainder 4
16/6 = 2 with remainder 4

hence 100 in base 6 is 244..
@vbhvgupta said:
bhai time material se hai ans is 320..if u want I ll share the solution.
bhai chod de time & work ab to.. bahtu din ho gaye..
aaj kuch toofani karo..