well this is my first post...i hope the solution is right
SOLUTION :
since f(x + f(x)) = x i.e x + f(x) = f_inverse(x) --------- 1
and f(ax + bf(x)) = cx + df(x)
i.e ax + bf(x) = f_inverse( cx + df(x) )
so ax + bf(x) = f_inverse( cx ) + f_inverse( df(x) )
ax + bf(x) = c * f_inverse( x ) + d * f_inverse( f(x) )
putting the value of f_inverse(x) from 1 in the above
ax + bf(x) = c ( x + f(x) ) + d * x
simplifies to ax + bf(x) = ( c + d )x + c f(x)
from the above by equating the coefficient of the variables it can be said that
a = c + d and b = c.
thus from above OPTION 1 is right
what say u ?