page no. 22 and 23rd or the 2nd edition deals with these formulas..read these pages carefully because it covers atleast 5 question profiles
I agree kanak that it indeed has the method of solving the question and you did use the exact method perfectly well. I was just talking about the formula that is not mentioned in that book.
I agree kanak that it indeed has the method of solving the question and you did use the exact method perfectly well. I was just talking about the formula that is not mentioned in that book.
Now if you look at the fifth term of the AP, it will be -2...and the corresponding term of HP will be -1/2
My question is...how can an increasing HP have a -ive consequent term...????
Progression is nothing but a series of numbers which have a certain kind of fixed relation between them. In case of AP and GP we see that the relation may lead to a series which is constantly increasing or decreasing so we can make a basic division as increasing or decreasing series. But no such relation can be dawn in case of Harmonic progression. If we think of your series the 4th term is 0. So do we have a corresponding 4th term in HP of this series. Also can't a series of 0's be considered as an AP series with common difference 0?(there is no HP existing for this series) or a series of 1 as AP with common difference 0 or a GP with ratio as 1?
So I just think we cannot have such division (increasing/decreasing) for the HP series.
Progression is nothing but a series of numbers which have a certain kind of fixed relation between them. In case of AP and GP we see that the relation may lead to a series which is constantly increasing or decreasing so we can make a basic division as increasing or decreasing series. But no such relation can be dawn in case of Harmonic progression. If we think of your series the 4th term is 0. So do we have a corresponding 4th term in HP of this series. Also can't a series of 0's be considered as an AP series with common difference 0?(there is no HP existing for this series) or a series of 1 as AP with common difference 0 or a GP with ratio as 1?
So I just think we cannot have such division (increasing/decreasing) for the HP series.
dude a harmonic progression changes it sign after 0... Remember a sign wave? it changes from positive to negative right? same applies here...
This question is from Probability in Arun Sharma.Could anyone please help me out with this problem?
Out of a pack of 52 cards one is lost; from the remainder of the pack, two cards are drawn and are found to be spades. find the chance that the missing card is a spade.
a) 11/50 b) 11/49 c)10/49 d)10/50
Hi Dude, Your answer :
When you draw 2 cards from a pack of 52 you are left with 50 cards. Sample Space - 50 Cards. Event - Loosing a Spade card from 50 - 11 ( Since already 2 spades have been drawn)
Chance of loosing a spade from the entire pack can be defined as
= Event/Sample Space Ans = 11/50 Which is option (a)
Well if you move from one side of zero to the other side it will always be accompanied by a change of sign. The question was: how can an increasing HP have a -ive consequent term...???? So i just answered that not every series can be divided as an increasing or decreasing series.
Hi, Can any body gve me an elaborate soln for this one: Q8(LOD II Profit & Loss) A dishont dealer marks up the the price of his goods by 20 % and gives a discount of 10% to the customer.Besides , he also cheats both his supplier and his buyer by 100gms while buying or selling 1 kg.Find the percentage profit earned by the shopkeeper. (a) 20% (b)25% (c)32% (d)none of these
Hi, Can any body gve me an elaborate soln for this one: Q8(LOD II Profit & Loss) A dishont dealer marks up the the price of his goods by 20 % and gives a discount of 10% to the customer.Besides , he also cheats both his supplier and his buyer by 100gms while buying or selling 1 kg.Find the percentage profit earned by the shopkeeper. (a) 20% (b)25% (c)32% (d)none of these
suppose he bought 1100gm at 100rs. now he sells 900gm at=120-12= 108rs..so he sells 1100 gm at=108*1100/900 = 132
Hi, Can any body gve me an elaborate soln for this one: Q8(LOD II Profit & Loss) A dishont dealer marks up the the price of his goods by 20 % and gives a discount of 10% to the customer.Besides , he also cheats both his supplier and his buyer by 100gms while buying or selling 1 kg.Find the percentage profit earned by the shopkeeper. (a) 20% (b)25% (c)32% (d)none of these
Suppose that 1kg of goods cost Rs. x But the dealer cheats and buys 100 gm more. Thus for him 1.1 kg costs Rs. x i.e. cost price(CP) = x/1.1 Rs/Kg Now he markup this actual price (x Rs/Kg) price by 20% i.e New Price = 1.2x then he provide a discount of 10% i.e. New Price = 0.9*1.2x But while selling he sells 100gm less than the quoted quantity i.e he actually sells 0.9Kg instead of 1Kg Thus 0.9Kg is sold at Rs. (0.9*1.2x). Therefore per Kg cost is 1.2x Rs/Kg So SP = 1.2x Profit = (SP-CP)/CP*100 Ans = 32%