Does History repeat itself??? - The CAT Papers Journey

Does History repeat itself ?? :smiley: Does lightning strike twice in the same place?? Huh?? What has this got to do with the CAT …You are wondering? :: Well …year after year as a CAT trainer I have observed that one thing th…

Does History repeat itself ?? 😃

Does lightning strike twice in the same place??

Huh?? What has this got to do with the CAT ..You are wondering?

Well ..year after year as a CAT trainer I have observed that one thing that students religiously seem to avoid is to look at the question papers from the previous years.

With excuses ranging from..."I haven't findished the syllabus yet !!" ( As if you will ever feel that you have finished it ..

to.... "These questions have already come.. They are not going to come again ..Right:-o??"

That was until last year when reportedly some questions seemed to have come from from previous years papers..at which point everybody rushed to flip through the old papers!!!

Of Course the query is valid: Why should we look at Old Papers??

Some of the reasons I can think of....

1. Solving actual CAT problems and analysing the logic behind questions set in previous years helps us to get attuned to the thinking style of the Paper setters over the years. I am not talking about just solving a particular question but rather a more rigorous analysis of what particular funda was being tested through that question. A little bit of speculation as to what other forms the question could take.

2. The online exam ( at least - last year ) seems to have been a tad easier as compared to the papers of 2005-2008. So by going back 8-10 years in the exams history we might actually come across the kind of questions set at the difficulty level of the online exam. Of course Absolute Difficulty levels in the CAT should not matter as your performance is benchmarked against the performance of the rest of the population..

3. Preparing 75-100 unique questions for an examination is easy. Multiply that same task by 20 x 2 ( No. of Days with 2 sessions per day) and the same task becomes a little more complicated. There is bound to be repetition of concepts and fundas and principles and applications used in previous years. If you are lucky ..some questions as well


Did I convince you?? Not yet??

One Live Example... CAT 2006 - The English section was a nightmare !!! With examinees wondering what had hit them as they came out of the hall. Cut-offs could have been as low as 6-7 Qs out of 25 in the English Usage section. One of the reasons for this low scoring affair was the introduction of a new type of question in the VA section - IFJ --- Inference Fact Judgement. Now as we flip back over the years ... What is this ??? IFJ is not something new as everybody had thought !!:-o.. It had made an appearance in the CAT in 1994!!!Admittedly the questions were much simpler ..the definitions less verbose ..but still the basic concepts would have been familiar if an aspirant had gone through the paper. ( Oh! Also the Sentences from IFJ were lifted/modified from an article the Editorial Page of the Times of India..from September 2006..so I hope you are following your newspapers 😃

What shall we do here???

We are going to have a look at Questions from the Papers 1994-2008

With 8 weeks left before the CAT kicks off we have roughly 3-4 days per paper to analyse and reflect on the questions and to try to extract the maximum learning out of each paper.

I shall post questions from each section of the paper. We can discuss these questions where required. The focus should be on trying to find short-cuts, finding innovative ways of solving questions and extracting the basic learning behind each question. Also trying to figure out if a different spin can be put on the same questions.

Every 3-4 days I will post the key which should be hopefully be a redundant exercise. Sice we will have discussed the questions to death by then!! 😃 We will move on to a new paper. I shall publish a schedule/ time line of sorts as we progress.

Request puys with expertise in QA/DI/ VA to pitch in with their inputs so that maximum mileage can be derived from the efffort...

CAT 1994 -28th August
CAT 1995 - 1st September
CAT 1996 - 4th September
CAT 1997 -
CAT 1998 -
CAT 1999 -
.
.
.


So let the Journey Begin..!!!

All the Best!!

Directions for questions 1 to 5: Arrange sentences
A, B, C and D between sentences 1 and 6 to form a
logical sequence.
1. Arrange sentences A, B, C and D between
sentences 1 and 6 to form a logical sequence.
1. Clues to the answer lie at your feet,
scattered among the rubble.
A. Most are only a few inches across.
B. The rock here is a crumbling, easily-split
sandstone and in it lie thousand upon
thousands of coiled shells.
C. They are ammonites.
D. Some are big as cartwheels.
6. No ammonite is alive today but a hundred
million years ago, they flourished in vast
numbers.
a. ADCB
b. BADC
c. CBAD
d. DCBA
2. Arrange sentences A, B, C and D between
sentences 1 and 6 to form a logical sequence.
1. A reptile becomes stuck in a swamp and
dies.
A. Over great periods of time, the peat is
compressed and turned to coal.
B. As the centuries pass and more vegetation
accumulates, the deposit turns to peat.
C. Changes in sea level may cause the swamp
to be flooded and layers of sand to be
deposited on top of the peat.
D. Dead vegetation drifts to the bottom and
covers them.
6. The reptiles bones still remain within it.
a. DBCA
b. BCDA
c. CDBA
d. DABC
3. Arrange sentences A, B, C and D between
sentences 1 and 6 to form a logical sequence.
1. Voyager-I was very high in the ecliptic
plane.
A. They are triumphs of human engineering
and one of the glories of the American
space programme.
B. In 1981, it had made a close pass by Titan,
the giant moon of Saturn.
C. The two Voyager robots have explored
four planets and nearly sixty moons.
D. Its sister ship, Voyager, was patched on a
different trajectory, so she was able to
perform her celebrated explorations of
Uranus and Neptune.
6. They will be in the history books when
much else about our time is forgotten.
a. CBDA
b. DACB
c. BDCA
d. BCDA
4. Arrange sentences A, B, C and D between
sentences 1 and 6 to form a logical sequence.
1. There are, moreover, unconscious aspects
of our perception of reality.
A. Within the mind they become psychic
events.
B. The first is the fact that even when our
senses react to real phenomena, sights and
sounds, they are somehow translated from
the realm of reality.
C. Not to speak of the fact that every concrete
object is always unknown in certain
respects.
D. Thus every experience contains an
indefinite number of unknown factors.
6. The reason is, we cannot know the
ultimate nature of matter itself.
a. CBDA
b. BADC
c. DBAC
d. DABC
5. Arrange sentences A, B, C and D between
sentences 1 and 6 to form a logical sequence.
1. The process continued for million of years.
A. Tibet, before the collision of the
continents, had been a well-watered plain
along the southern edge of Asia.
B. Nor has this process stopped.
C. On the site of the ancient sea there flow
stood the highest and newest mountains in
the-world.
D. It was not only pushed upwards but
gradually deprived of its rainfall by the
young mountains and so changed into the
high cold desert.
6. India is still moving north at the rate of 5
centimetres a year, and each year the
rocky summits of the Himalayas are a
millimetre higher.
a. CBAD
b. DCBA
c. BADC
d. ADCB

Directions Q. 6 to 10: Choose the alternative which
suggests a coherent paragraph.
6. Choose the alternative which suggests a
coherent paragraph.
A. The open road still softly calls, like a
nearly forgotten song of childhood.
B. Even after 400 generations in villages and
cities, we havent forgotten.
C. The appeal has been meticulously crafted
by natural selection as an essential element
in our survival.
D. We invest far-off places with a certain
romance.
a. BCAD
b. OCAB
c. CBDA
d. ACDB
7. Choose the alternative which suggests a
coherent paragraph.
A. The remaining chapters were written by
various authors to Jungs direction.
B. The chapter that bears his name is his
work and nobody elses.
C. The final editing of the complete work
after Jungs death has been done by Dr.
Von Franz.
D. It was written, incidentally, in English.
a. CBDA
b. ADBC
c. ACDB
d. DCBA
8. Choose the alternative which suggests a
coherent paragraph.
A. It is beyond our powers to predict the
future.
B. Your own life, or your bands, or even
your species might be owed to a restless
few.
C. Long summers, mild winters, which
harvests, plentiful game none of them
lasts forever.
D. Catastrophic events have a way of
sneaking up on us, of catching us unaware.
a. ADCB
b. BCDA
c. ACDB
d. BDCA
9. Choose the alternative which suggests a
coherent paragraph.
A. The quintessence, for example, a lizard is
only fully understandable in the light of
the particular possibilities and limitations
dictated by its reptilian nature.
B. The films we made, tried to document the
lives of particular animals showing how
each found its food, defended itself and
courted etc.
C. We seldom examined the basic character
of its anatomy.
D. One element, however, was missing.
a. ACBD
b. BADC
c. ADBC
d. CDAB
10. Choose the alternative which suggests a
coherent paragraph.
A. These researchers have become so
knowledgeable about their subjects that
they have been guiding us to the right
place at the right time.
B. The great increase during the past decade
in the number of scientists actively
involved in observing animals in the wild
is very important.
C. They have guided us to see exactly that
aspect of behaviour that was of particular
interest to us.
D. Almost every group of large animals is
now being studied by scientists.
everywhere.
a. BDAC
b. CBDA
c. DCBA
d. ACBD

Directions: In Q. 11 to 15, four statement with
blanks have been given. These statements are
followed by four alternatives. Choose the one which
fits into the set of statements the maximum number
of times.
11. Four statement with blanks have been given.
These statements are followed by four
alternatives. Choose the one which fits into the
set of statements the maximum number of
times.
A. Professional studies have become the
of the rich.
B. Every citizen has the ______ to speak,
travel and live as he pleases.
C. He has a definite _______ over all his
rivals.
D. Sheron no longer has the _____ of the
companys bungalow and car.
a. advantage
b. privilege
c. right
d. right concession
12. Four statement with blanks have been given.
These statements are followed by four
alternatives. Choose the one which fits into the
set of statements the maximum number of
times.
A. People sensed ______
B. A bad case had come in a person with a
smashed arm.
C. And then, without warning, struck.
D. The dogs were the first to recognise the
sings of oncoming _____
a. tragedy
b. accident
c. disaster
d. calamity
13. Four statement with blanks have been given.
These statements are followed by four
alternatives. Choose the one which fits into the
set of statements the maximum number of
times.
A. The men there have fought _______ and
emotional withdrawal, and were more
capable of helping Jim.
B. But ________ does occasionally inflict all
the adults.
C. A person who is deeply hurt feels very
____
D. It is hard to survive this feeling of _____.
a. dejection
b. lonely
c. trouble
d. depression
14. Four statement with blanks have been given.
These statements are followed by four
alternatives. Choose the one which fits into the
set of statements the maximum number of
times.
A. I have had a small power of______
B. Down with a very high fever, he suffers
from frequents fits of ________
C. They are now bitter enemies_________ all
because of a small _________
D. Her ______ is the most creative thing she
has ever possessed.
a. illusion
b. imagination
c. hallucination
d. misunderstanding
15. Four statement with blanks have been given.
These statements are followed by four
alternatives. Choose the one which fits into the
set of statements the maximum number of
times.
A. Communism states that every individual
must live for the _____
B. The _______ of the affairs of the nation is
deplorable.
C. ________ have been laid down by the
United States, states The Statesman.
D. No __________ has succeeded in gaining
complete autonomy from the Federal
government.
a. state
b. nation
c. government
d. condition
Directions Q 16 to 18: from the given alternatives,
select the one in which the pairs of words have a
relationship similar to the one between the bold
words.
16. LYING : PERJURY
a. statement : testimony
b. seeing : observing
c. taking: stealing
d. eating : dining
17. PREHISTORIC : MEDIEVAL
a. Akbar : British
b. Present : Future
c. Shakespeare : Tennyson
d. Coloussus : Elephant
18. LOUD : STENTORIAN
a. mild: noisy
b. painful : prickly
c. adjective : descriptive
d. bright : resplendent
Directions: Q 19 to 23, four parts of a sentence have
been given. From the alternatives, find the
combination which best gives a meaningful
sentence.
19. Four parts of a sentence have been given.
From the alternatives, find the combination
which best gives a meaningful sentence.
A. there was the hope that in another
existence a greater happiness would
reward one
B. previous existence, and the effort to do
better would be less difficult too when
C. it would be less difficult to bear the evils
of ones own life if
D. one could think that they were but the
necessary outcome of ones errors in a
a. CABD
b. BDCA
c. BADC
d. CDBA
20. Four parts of a sentence have been given.
From the alternatives, find the combination
which best gives a meaningful sentence.
A. he can only renew him self if his soul
B. he renews himself and
C. the writer can only be fertile if
D. is constantly enriched by fresh experience
a. CBAD
b. CADB
c. BDCA
d. BACD
21. Four parts of a sentence have been given.
From the alternatives, find the combination
which best gives a meaningful sentence.
A. but masterpiece is
B. untaught genius
C. a laborious career than as the lucky fluke
of
D. more likely to come as the culminating
point of
a. CDAB
b. ADCB
c. CDBA
d. ACDB
22. Four parts of a sentence have been given.
From the alternatives, find the combination
which best gives a meaningful sentence.
A. what interests you is the way in which you
have created the illusion
B. they are angry with you, for it was
C. the public is easily disillusioned and then
D. the illusion they loved; they do not
understand that
a. ACBD
b. BDCA
c. CBDA
d. BCAD
23. Four parts of a sentence have been given.
From the alternatives, find the combination
which best gives a meaningful sentence.
A. an adequate physical and social
infrastructure level
B. the pattern of spatial growth in these
towns as also to
C. the failure of the government to ensure
D. the roots of the riots are related to
a. ACBD
b. DBCA
c. ABDC
d. CBDA
Directions Q 24 to 30: Fill in the blanks
24. Ms. Sutcliffes helpful notes on her latest wine
discoveries and her no-nonsense warnings to
consumers about ________ wines provide
_______ guide to the numbering array of
wines of Burgundy.
a. excellent .... a useful
b. overrated..., an inadequate
c. overpriced .... a trusty
d. unsatisfactory ... a spotty
25. We were amazed that a man who had been
heretofore the most ________ of public
speakers could, in a single speech, electrify an
audience and bring them cheering to their feet.
a. enthralling
b. accomplished
c. pedestrian
d. auspicious
26. If you are trying to make a strong impression
on your audience, you can not do so by being
understated, tentative, or __________.
a. hyperbolic
b. restrained
c. argumentative
d. authoritative
27. The neighbour grabbed the boy, and rolled
him on the road to _______ the flames.
a. smother
b. kill
c. burn out
d. fizz out
28. Sam asked me to keep this secret ________.
a. secret
b. in myself
c. amongst us
d. between us
29. Sometimes the greatest inventions _____ an
idea of startling simplicity.
a. stumbles upon
b. hinge upon
c. starves without
d. lacks
30. Real friends, genuinely wanting the best for
the organisation, _________ different garbs.
a. come in
b. clad in
c. dressed in
d. clothed in
Directions Q. 31 to 40: from the alternatives, choose
the one which correctly classifies the four sentences
as a
F: Fact: If it relates to a known matter of direct
observation, or an existing reality or something
known to be true,
J: Judgment: If it is an opinion or estimate or
anticipation of common sense or intention,
I: Inference: If it is a logical conclusion or deduction
about something, based on the knowledge of facts.
31. From the alternatives, choose the one which
correctly classifies the four sentences as a
A. If India has embarked on the liberalisation
route, she cannot afford to go back.
B. Under these circumstances, being an
active supporter of WTO policies will be a
good idea.
C. The WTO is a truly global organisation
aiming at freer trade.
D. Many member countries have already
drafted plans to simplify tariff structures.
a. FJFI
b. IFJF
c. IJFF
d. IFIF
32. From the alternatives, choose the one which
correctly classifies the four sentences as a
A. The Minister definitely took the wrong
step.
B. Under the circumstances, he had many
other alternatives.
C. The Prime Minister is embarrassed due to
the Ministers decision.

D. If he has put the government in jeopardy,
the Minister must resign.
a. JFFI
b. IFJI
c. FFJI
d. IFIJ
33. From the alternatives, choose the one which
correctly classifies the four sentences as a
A. The ideal solution will be to advertise
aggressively.
B. One brand is already popular amongst the
youth.
C. Reducing prices will mean trouble as our
revenues are already dwindling.
D. The correct solution will be to consolidate
by aggressive marketing.
a. JFIJ
b. FJJI
c. IJFF
d. JJIF
34. From the alternatives, choose the one which
correctly classifies the four sentences as a
A. If democracy is to survive, the people
must develop a sense of consumerism.
B. Consumerism has helped improve the
quality of goods in certain countries.
C. The protected environment in our country
is helping local manufacturers.
D. The quality of goods suffers if the
manufacturers take undue advantage of
this.
a. IJFJ
b. JFJI
c. IJJF
d. IFJJ
35. From the alternatives, choose the one which
correctly classifies the four sentences as a
A. Unless the banks agree to a deferment of
the interest, we cannot show profits this
year.
B. This would not have happened had we
adopted a stricter credit scheme.
C. The revenues so far cover only the cost
and salaries.
D. Let us learn a lesson: we cannot make
profits without complete control over
credit.
a. IIJF
b. IJFI
c. FJIF
d. FJFI
36. From the alternatives, choose the one which
correctly classifies the four sentences as a
A. Qualities cannot be injected into ones
personality.
B. They are completely dependent on the
genetic configuration that one inherits.
C. Hence changing our inherent traits is
impossible as the genes are unalterable.
D. The least one can do is to try and subdue
the bad qualities.
a. FIJI
b. JFFI
c. JFIJ
d. JIFI
37. From the alternatives, choose the one which
correctly classifies the four sentences as a
A. Everything is purposeless.
B. Nothing before and after the existence of
the universe is known with certainty.
C. Man is a part of the purposeless universe,
hence man is also purposeless.
D. There is only one way of adding purpose
to this universe: Union with Him.
a. JFIJ
b. FJJI
c. JFFI
d. IJFJ
38. From the alternatives, choose the one which
correctly classifies the four sentences as a
A. Everyday social life is impossible without
interpersonal relationships.
B. The root of many misunderstandings has
been cited in poor relations among
individuals.
C. Assuming the above to the true, social life
will be much better if people understand
the importance of good interpersonal
relations.
D. A study reveals that interpersonal relations
and hence life in general can be improved
with a little effort on the art of individuals.
a. FJIJ
b. JFIF
c. FIFJ
d. IFFJ
39. From the alternatives, choose the one which
correctly classifies the four sentences as a
A. The prices of electronic goods are falling.
B. Since we have substantial reductions in
import duties, this is obvious.
C. The trend is bound to continue in the near
future.
D. But the turnover of the electronic industry
is still rising, because consumers are
increasing at a rapid rate.
a. IFJF
b. FJII
c. FIJF
d. JIFF
40. From the alternatives, choose the one which
correctly classifies the four sentences as a
A. In the past, it appears, wealth distribution,
and not wealth creation has dominated
economic policy.
B. Clearly, the government has not bothered
to eradicate poverty.
C. Todays liberalisation is far from the
hitherto Nehruvian socialism.
D. Results are evident in the form of a boom
in the manufacturing sector output and
turnover of all industries.
a. FJIF
b. FIFJ
c. IJIF
d. JIFF
Directions Q.41 to 50: Each question contains six
statements followed by four sets of combinations of
three. Choose the set in which the combinations are
logically related.
41. Each question contains six statements
followed by four sets of combinations of three.
Choose the set in which the combinations are
logically related.
A. All vegetarians eat meat.
B. All those who eat meat are not
vegetarians.
C. All those who eat meat are herbivorous.
D. All vegetarians are carnivorous.
E. All those who eat meat are carnivorous.
F. Vegetarians are herbivorous.
a. BCE
b. ABE
c. ACD
d. ACF
42. Each question contains six statements
followed by four sets of combinations of three.
Choose the set in which the combinations are
logically related.
A. All roses have thorns.
B. All roses have nectar.
C. All plants with nectar have thorns.
D. All shrubs have roses.
E. All shrubs have nectar.
F. Some roses have thorns.
a. BEF
b. BCF
c. BDE
d. ACF
43. Each question contains six statements
followed by four sets of combinations of three.
Choose the set in which the combinations are
logically related.
A. No spring is a season.
B. Some seasons are springs.
C. Some seasons are autumns.
D. No seasons are autumns.
E. Some springs are not autumns.
F. All springs are autumns.
a. DFA
b. BEF
c. CEB
d. DEB
44. Each question contains six statements
followed by four sets of combinations of three.
Choose the set in which the combinations are
logically related.
A. All falcons fly high.
B. All falcons are blind.
C. All falcons are birds.
D. All birds are yellow.
E. All birds are thirsty.
F. All falcons are yellow.
a. ABC
b. CDF
c. DEF
d. BCA
45. Each question contains six statements
followed by four sets of combinations of three.
Choose the set in which the combinations are
logically related.
A. No wires are hooks.
B. Some spring are hooks
C. All springs are wires.
D. Some hooks are not wires.
E. No hook is a spring.
F. All wires are springs.
a. AEF
b. BCF
c. BEF
d. ACE
46. Each question contains six statements
followed by four sets of combinations of three.
Choose the set in which the combinations are
logically related.
A. Some abra are dabra.
B. All abra are cabra.
C. All dabra are abra.
D. All dabra are abra.
E. Some cabra are abra
F. Some cabra are dabra.
a. AEF
b. BCF
c. ABD
d. BCE
47. Each question contains six statements
followed by four sets of combinations of three.
Choose the set in which the combinations are
logically related.
A. No plane is a chain.
B. All manes are chains.
C. No mane is a plane.
D. Some manes are not planes.
E. Some planes are manes
F. Some chains are not planes.
a. ACD
b. ADF
c. ABC
d. CDF
48. Each question contains six statements
followed by four sets of combinations of three.

Choose the set in which the combinations are
logically related.
A. All dolls are nice.
B. All toys are nice.
C. All toys are dolls.
D. Some toys are nice.
E. Some nice things are dolls.
F. No doll is nice.
a. CDE
b. CEF
c. ACD
d. BEF
49. Each question contains six statements
followed by four sets of combinations of three.
Choose the set in which the combinations are
logically related.
A. Some building are not sky-scrapers.
B. Some sky-scrapers are not buildings.
C. No structure is a sky-scraper.
D. All sky-scrapers are structures.
E. All sky-scrapers are buildings.
F. Some structures are not buildings.
a. ACE
b. BDF
c. CDE
d. ACF
50. Each question contains six statements
followed by four sets of combinations of three.
Choose the set in which the combinations are
logically related.
A. All bins are buckets.
B. No bucket is a basket.
C. No bin is a basket.
D. Some baskets are buckets.
E. Some bins are baskets.
F. No basket is a bin.
a. BDE
b. ACB
c. CDF
d. ABF
Directions: Q. 51, choose the best alternative.
51. The number of votes not cast for the Praja
Party increased by 25% in the National
General Elections over those not cast for it in
the previous Assembly Polls, and the Praja
Party lost by a majority twice as large as that
by which it had won the Assembly Polls. If a
total 2,60,000 people voted each time, how
many voted for the Praja Party in the
Assembly Elections?
a. 1,10,000
b. 1,50,000
c. 1,40,000
d. 1,20,000
Directions: Q. 52 to 54 are based on the fol1oving

information:
Ghoshbabu is staying at Ghosh

Housing Society, Aghosh Colony, Dighoshpur,


Calcutta. In Ghosh Housing Society 6 persons read
daily Ganshakit and 4 read Anand Bazar Patrika:
in his colony there is no person who reads both. The
total number of persons who read these two
newspapers in Aghosh Colony and Dighoshpur is
52 and 200 respectively. The number of persons
who read Ganashakti in Aghosh Colony and
Dighoshpur is33 and 121 respectively; while the
persons who read Anand Bazar Patrika in Aghosh
Colony and Dighoshpurare32 and 117 respectively.


52. Number of persons in Dighoshpur who read


only Ganashakti is:
a. 121
b. 83
c. 79
d. 127
53. Number of persons in Aghosh Colony who
read both these newspapers is:
a. 13
b. 20
c. 19
d. 14
54. Number of persons in Aghosh Colony who
read only one newspaper is:
a. 29
b. 19
c. 39
d. 20


Directions Q. 55 to 62: Choose the best alternative.



55. To be posted later


56. A right circular cone, a right circular cylinder


and a hemisphere, all have the same radius,
and the heights of the cone and cylinder equal
their diameters. Then their volumes are
proportional, respectively to:
a. 1:3:1
b. 2:1:3
c. 3:2:1
d. 1:2:3


Two towns A and B are 100 km apart. A


school is to be built for 100 students of Town
B and 30 students of Town A. Expenditure on
transport is Rs 1.20 per km. If the total
expenditure on transport by all 130 students is
to be as small as possible, then the school
should be built at:
a. 33 km from Town A
b. 33 km from town B


c. Town A
d. Town B
58. One man can do as much work in one day as a
woman can do in 2 days A child does onethird
the work in a day as a woman. If an
estate-owner hires 39 pairs of hands, men,
woman and children in the ratio 6 : 5 :2 and
pays them in all Rs 1113 at the end of the
days work. What must the daily wages of a
child be, if the wages are proportional to the
amount of work done?
a. Rs. 14
b. Rs. 5
c. Rs. 20
d. Rs. 7
59. A right circular cone of height h is cut by a
plane parallel to the base and at a distance h/3
from the vertex, then the volumes of the
resulting cone and frustum are in the ratio:
a. 1 : 3
b. 8 : 19
c. 1 : 4
d. 1 : 7



60. To post later



61. If the harmonic mean between two positive


numbers is to their geometric mean as 12 : 13,


then the numbers could be in the ratio:
a. 12: 13
b. 1/12: 1/13
c. 4:9
d. 2:3



62. To post later



Directions: Q. 63 and 64 are based on the following

information.

If md(x) = x|,


mn(x, y) = minimum of x and y, and
ma(a, b, c,) = maximum of a, b, c
63. The value of ma(a) where a = -2,b = -3, c = 4 is:
a. 2
b. 6
c. 8
d. -2
64. Given that a > b, then the relation ma = mn does not hold
if:
a. a
b. a > 0, b > 0
c. a > 0, b
d. a > 0, b b


Directions for questions 65 to 73: Choose the best


alternative.

65. A water tank has three taps A, B, and C. A


fills four buckets in 24 mm, B fills 8 buckets
in 1 hour and C fills 2 buckets in 20 minutes.
If all the taps are opened together a full tank is
emptied in 2 hours. If a bucket can hold 5
litres of water, what is the capacity of the
tank?
a. 120 litres
b. 240 litres
c. 180 litres
d. 60 litres
66. Shyam went from Delhi to Simla via
Chandigarh by car. The distance from Delhi to
Chandigarh is 3/4 times the distance from
Chandigarh to Simla. The average speed from
Delhi to Chandigarh was half as much again as
that from Chandigarh to Simla. If the average
speed for the entire journey was 49 kmph,
what was the average speed from Chandigarh
to Simla?
a. 39.2 kmph
b. 63 kmph
c. 42 kmph
d. None of these
67. The fourth term of an arithmetic progression is
8. What is the sum of the first 7 terms of the
arithmetic progression?
a. 7
b. 64
c. 56
d. cannot be determined
68. It takes a pendulum of a clock 7 seconds to
strike 4 oclock. How much time will it take to
strike 11 oclock?
a. 18 seconds
b. 20 seconds
c. 19.25 seconds
d. 23.33 seconds
69. Along a road lie an odd number of stones
placed at intervals of 10 m. These stones have
to be assembled around the middle stone. A
person can carry only one stone at a time. A
man carried out the job starting with the stone
in the middle, carrying stones in succession,
thereby covering a distance of 4.8 km. Then
the number of stones is:
35


b. 15
c. 29
d. 31
70. What is the smallest number, which when
increased by 5 is completely divisible by 8, 11
and 24?
a. 264
b. 259
c. 269
d. None of these
71. A man buys spirit at Rs. 60 per litre, adds
water to it and then sells it at Rs. 75 per litre.
What is the ratio of spirit to water if his profit
in the deal is 37.5%?
a. 9 : 1
b. 10 : 1
c. 11 : 1
d. None of these
72. Four friends start from four towns, which are
at the four corners of an imaginary rectangle.
They meet at a point which falls inside the
rectangle, after travelling distances of4O, 50,
and 60 metres. The maximum distance that the
fourth could have travelled is (approximately):
a. 67 metres
b. 52 metres
c. 22.5 metres
d. Cannot be determined
73. A and B walk from X to Y, a distance of27 km
at 5 kmph and 7 kmph respectively. B reaches
Y and immediately turns back meeting A at Z.
What is the distance from X to Z?
a. 25 km
b. 22.5 km
c. 24 km
d. 20 km


Direction: Q. 74 to 76, refer to the following


information:

Alphonso, on his deathbed, keeps half his property for


his wife and divides the rest equally among his three
sons Ben, Carl and Dave. Some years later Ben dies
leaving half his property to his widow and half to his
brothers Carl and Dave together, shared equally. When
Carl makes his will he keeps half his property for his
widow and the rest he bequeaths to his younger brother
Dave. When Dave dies some years later, he keeps half
his property for his widow and the remaining for his
mother. The mother now has Rs 1,575,000.
74. What was the worth of the total property?
a. Rs. 30 lakh
b. Rs. 8 lakh
c. Rs. 18 lakh
d. Rs. 24 lakh




75. What was Carls original share?
a. Rs. 4 lakh
b. Rs. 12 lakh
c. Rs. 6 lakh
d. Rs. 5 lakh
76. What was the ratio of the property owned by
the widows of the three sons, in the end?
a. 7 : 9 : 13
b. 8 : 10 : 15
c. 5 : 7 : 9
d. 9 : 12 : 13
Directions: Q. 77 to 80, choose the best alternative:

77. To post later

78. There is leak in the bottom of a tank. This leak
can empty a full tank in 8 hours. When the
tank is full, a tap is opened into the tank which
admits 6 litres per hour and the tank is now
emptied in 12 hours. What is the capacity of
the tank?
a. 28.8 litres
b. 36 litres
c. 144 litres
d. Cannot be determined
79. Which is the least number that must be
subtracted from 1856, so that the remainder,
when divided by 7, 12, and 16, will leave the
same remainder 4.
a. 137
b. 1361
c. 140
d. 172
80. A dealer offers a cash discount of 20% and
still makes a profit of 20%, when he further
allows 16, articles to a dozen to a particularly
sticky bargainer. How much percent above the
cost price were his wares listed?
a. 100%
b. 80%
c. 75%
d. 66
2/3%
Directions: Q 81 to 85, data is
provided followed
by two statements - I and II - both resulting in a
value, I and II.
Mark a if I > II
Mark b if I
Mark c if I = II
Mark d if nothing can be said.

SECTION-3

[LEFT]Directions: Q 81 to 85, data is
provided followed[/LEFT]

[LEFT]by two statements - I and II - both resulting in a
value, I and II.

Mark a if I > II

Mark b if I
Mark c if I = II
Mark d if nothing can be said.[/LEFT]


[LEFT]81. Nineteen years from now Jackson will be 3
times as old as Joseph is now. Johnson is three
years younger than Jackson.
1. Johnsons age now.[/LEFT]
2. Josephs age now.

[LEFT]a. Mark a if I > II
b. Mark b if I
c. Mark c if I = II
d. Mark d if nothing can be said.[/LEFT]

[LEFT]82. To Post Later[/LEFT]

[LEFT]83. Last week Manoj received Rs 10 in
commission for selling 100 copies of a
magazine. Last week Manu sold 100 copies of
this magazine. He received his salary ofRs 5 pr
week plus a commission of 2 paise for each of
the first 25 copies sold, 3 paise for each of
next 25 copies sold and 4 paise for each copy
thereafter.
1. Manojs commission in the last week
2. Manus total income for last week.
3. Area of
ď „ ADE.[/LEFT]

[LEFT]a. Mark a if I > II[/LEFT]


[LEFT]b. Mark b if I [/LEFT]


[LEFT]c. Mark c if I = II[/LEFT]


[LEFT]d. Mark d if nothing can be said.[/LEFT]



[LEFT]84 To post later[/LEFT]



[LEFT]85.[/LEFT]


[LEFT]1. The probability of encountering 54[/LEFT]


[LEFT]Sundays in a leap year.[/LEFT]


[LEFT]2. The probability of encountering 53[/LEFT]


[LEFT]Sundays in a non-leap year.[/LEFT]


[LEFT]a. Mark a if I > II[/LEFT]


[LEFT]b. Mark b if I [/LEFT]


[LEFT]c. Mark c if I = II[/LEFT]

[LEFT]d. Mark d if nothing can be said.[/LEFT]


[LEFT]86. The winning relay team in a high school sports[/LEFT]


[LEFT]competition clocked 4-8 minutes for a distance[/LEFT]


[LEFT]of 13.2 km. Its runners A, B, C and D[/LEFT]


[LEFT]maintained speeds of 15 kmph, 16 kmph, 17[/LEFT]


[LEFT]kmph and 18 kmph respectively. What is the[/LEFT]


[LEFT]ratio of the time taken by B to that taken by D?[/LEFT]


[LEFT]a. 5 : 16[/LEFT]


[LEFT]b. 5 : 17[/LEFT]


[LEFT]c. 9 : 8[/LEFT]

[LEFT]d. 8 : 9[/LEFT]

[LEFT]87-90 . To post later[/LEFT]




Directions Q. 91 to 100: Each item has a question


followed by two statements


Mark a, if the question can be answered with the help


of I alone.


Mark b, if the question can be answered with the help


of II alone.


Mark c, if the question can be answered only with the


help of both I and II


Mark d, if the question cannot be answered even with


the help of both statements.


91. Is the distance from the office to home less


than the distance from the cinema hall to


home?


1. The time taken to travel from home to


office is as much as the time taken from


home to the cinema hail, both distances


being covered without stopping.


2. The road from the cinema hall to home is


bad and speed reduces, as compared to

that one the road from home to the office.

a. Mark a, if the question can be answered


with the help of I alone.


b. Mark b, if the question can be answered


with the help of II alone.


c. Mark c, if the question can be answered


only with the help of both I and II


d. Mark d, if the question cannot be


answered even with the help of both


statements.


92. A and B work at digging a ditch alternately for


a day each. If A can dig a ditch in a days and


B can dig it in b days, will work get done


faster if A begins the work?


1. n is a positive integer such that n(1/a +


1/b) = 1


2. b > a


a. Mark a, if the question can be answered


with the help of I alone.


b. Mark b, if the question can be answered


with the help of II alone.


c. Mark c, if the question can be answered


only with the help of both I and II


d. Mark d, if the question cannot be


answered even with the help of both


statements.


93. If twenty sweets are distributed among some


boys and girls such that each girl gets two


sweets and each boys gets three sweets, what


is the number of boys and girls?


1. The number of girls is not more than five.


2. If each girl gets 3 sweets and each boy


gets 2 sweets, the number of sweets


required for the children will still be the


same.


a. Mark a, if the question can be answered


with the help of I alone.


b. Mark b, if the question can be answered


with the help of II alone.


c. Mark c, if the question can be answered


only with the help of both I and II


d. Mark d, if the question cannot be


answered even with the help of both


statements.


94. If the selling price were to be increased by


10%, the sales would reduce by 10%. In what


ratio would profits change?


1. The cost price remains constant.


2. The cost price increased by 10%.


a. Mark a, if the question can be answered


with the help of I alone.


b. Mark b, if the question can be answered


with the help of II alone.


c. Mark c, if the question can be answered


only with the help of both I and II


d. Mark d, if the question cannot be


answered even with the help of both


statements.


95. What is the average weight of the 3 new team


members who are recently included into the


team?


1. The average weight of the team increases


by 20 kg.


2. The 3 new men substitute 3 earlier


members whose weighs are 64 kg, 75 kg,


and 66 kg.


a. Mark a, if the question can be answered


with the help of I alone.


b. Mark b, if the question can be answered


with the help of II alone.


c. Mark c, if the question can be answered


only with the help of both I and II


d. Mark d, if the question cannot be


answered even with the help of both


statements.


96. Is segment PQ greater than segment RS?


1. PB > RE, BQ = ES


2. B is a point on PQ, E is a point on RS.


a. Mark a, if the question can be answered


with the help of I alone.


b. Mark b, if the question can be answered


with the help of II alone.


c. Mark c, if the question can be answered


only with the help of both I and II


d. Mark d, if the question cannot be


answered even with the help of both


statements.


97. Three boys had a few Coffee Bite toffees with


them. The number of toffees with the second


were four more than those with the first and


the number of toffees with the third were four


more than those with the second. How many


toffees were there in all?


1. The number of toffees with each of them


is a multiple of 2.


2. The first boy ate up four toffees from what


he had and the second boy ate up six


toffees from what had and the third boy


gave them two toffees each from what he


had, and the number of toffees remaining


with each of them formed a geometric


progression.


a. Mark a, if the question can be answered


with the help of I alone.


b. Mark b, if the question can be answered


with the help of II alone.


c. Mark c, if the question can be answered


only with the help of both I and II


d. Mark d, if the question cannot be


answered even with the help of both


statements.


98. Little Beau Peep she lost her sheep, she


couldnt remember how many were there. She


knew she would have 400 more next year, than


the number of sheep she had last year. How

many sheep were there?

The number of sheep last year was 20%


more than the year before that and this


simple rate of increase continues to be the


same for the next 10 years.


2. The increase is compounded annually.


a. Mark a, if the question can be answered


with the help of I alone.


b. Mark b, if the question can be answered


with the help of II alone.


c. Mark c, if the question can be answered


only with the help of both I and II


d. Mark d, if the question cannot be


answered even with the help of both


statements.


99. What will be the total cost of creating a I-foot


border of tiles along the inside edges of a


room?


1. The room is 48 feet in length and 50 feet


in breadth.


2. Every tile costs Rs. 10.


a. Mark a, if the question can be answered


with the help of I alone.


b. Mark b, if the question can be answered


with the help of II alone.


c. Mark c, if the question can be answered


only with the help of both I and II


d. Mark d, if the question cannot be


answered even with the help of both


statements.


100. Ten boys to a neighbouring orchard. Each boy


steals a few mangoes. What is the total number


of mangoes they steal?


1. The first boy steals 4 mangoes, the fourth


boy steals 16 mangoes, the eight boy 32


mangoes and the tenth boy steals 40


mangoes.


2. The first boy stole the minimum number


of mangoes and the tenth boy stole the


maximum number of mangoes.


a. Mark a, if the question can be answered


with the help of I alone.


b. Mark b, if the question can be answered


with the help of II alone.


c. Mark c, if the question can be answered


only with the help of both I and II


d. Mark d, if the question cannot be


answered even with the help of both


statements.

PASSAGE 1
The translation in 1947 of Jean-Paul Sartres lecture,
Existentialism is a Humanism (1945), ensured that
the term existentialism would enter into the vocabulary
of American thought and culture. Existentialism is
notoriously difficult to define, especially since it
claims a varied philosophical background, drawing
from Rene Descartes, Soren Aabye Kierkegaard,
Friedrich Wilhelm Nietzsche, and Martin Heidegger.
Moreover, as Gabriel Marcel and others announced, an
existentialist could believe in God as mightily as a
Sartre embraced atheism. Sartres existentialism, in its
boldest outlines, came to rest on the assertion that man
is free, and that in having the freedom to choose, man
encounters anxiety and despair. While existentialism in
Sartres hands often dwelled on the absurd and
problematic nature of human existence, the essential
conclusion that the existential perspective drew was
that our existence is of our own making; we are
responsible for our fates.. This dreadful freedom was
at once exhilarating and frightening.
In his introduction to Sartres lecture on existentialism,
translator Bernard Frechtman remarked that the
American vogue for Sartres philosophy, which had
begun in 1945 was ... one of those curious phenomena
which might, if properly examined, illuminate some
peculiarities of culture in America. Alas, Frechtman
failed to develop this insight, although he did suggest
that the popular press in America had focused too
much on Sartres personality and too little on his ideas.
Examination of the initial dissemination of French
existentialism in American popular culture reveals a
number of intertwined themes. First, much of the
American fascination with French existentialism was
rooted in what French sociologist Pierre Bourdieu calls
cultural capital, the power of certain cultural
representations to command prestige and respect.
Thus, from the start, fashion and idea coexisted to
define the dissemination of French existentialism in
America. Second, American coverage of French
existentialists such as Sartric, Simone de Beauvoir, and
Albert Camus exemplified what historian Daniel
Boorstin calls the predominance of the celebrity in
modern American culture. The popular reception of
existentialism in America was as much about the
image of the intellectual as the content of existentialist
ideas. Third, Sartre and other existentialists were
portrayed in American popular culture as exemplary of
an erratic left-bank bohemianism, an image that fit
poorly with post-war celebrations of the American
intellectual as a sober minded, optimistic, and
respectable citizen. By popularising French
existentialists as celebrities and associating their
pessimistic philosophy with the trauma France had
experienced in World War II, the popular press
undermined their reception by the American
intellectual community. Many considered
existentialism a passing vogue, not centrally applicable
to the life of the mind in America. Thus, the cultural
politics for the dissemination of existentialism in
America became complex. marked by tensions in
control of the cultural capital associated with French
culture and the image of the intellectual. It was nearly
20 years before existentialism was accepted as a viable
philosophy relevant to the modern American
intellectual community.
Americans in the 1940s highly valued French ideas,
art, and fashion, less for any essential quality than for
the prestige that came with their French label. These
perceptions were satirised in two cartoons that ran in
the late 1940s in the New Yorker, which apotheosised
a certain popular, middlebrow style in America. In one
cartoon, a rather dishevelled street vendor selling ties
at 25 cents each looks askance at his well-dressed
competitor who is able to sell the same items,
elegantly called cravats, at one dollar apiece. Another
cartoon shows a doughty group of women, one of
whom exclaims: I know what! Lets play Old-
Fashioned before we start talking French. The allure
of France, of things French in American culture, must
not be underestimated as a continuing theme in
accounts of the popularity of existentialism and of
existential thinkers, and existential thinkers
consciously played on this fascination.
Before the Second World War in Europe had ended,
before the atomic bomb had forever scarred the
physical and mental landscape of modern men and
women, the existential figure and ideas of Jean-Paul
Sartre had alighted on American shores. Sartre was
determined to become an influential figure in both
Europe and the United States. In Paris Alive,
translated by Lincoln Kirstein, Sartre introduced
himself to Americans. In a note to the essay, the
editors of the magazine characterised Sartre,
incorrectly, as one of the military leaders of the
French resistance during the war. Although Sartre did
not refer to himself as a leader, he universalised his
discussion of the psychological impact of German
occupation upon the French by pronouncing: Never
were we freer than under the German occupation.
With this strange, apparently contradictory observation
about the nature of freedom, Sartre began to
communicate existentialist ideaswithout naming
them formallyto his American audience. In the
essay, Sartre also touched upon themes that would
later become associated with the essentials of an
existentialist perspective: authenticity, choice, the
presence of death, loneliness, responsibility, and the
notion that in his freedom in choosing himself, he
chose the freedom of all.
Major introductions to existentialism appeared in
American magazines between 1945 and 1948. The
dissemination of existentialist ideas and personalities
in the popular press was more than a story being
narrated upon the inert intellectual bodies of Sartre,
Beauvoir, Camus, and existentialism. As Anna
Boschetti has noted, Sartre and his followers had
carefully orchestrated their reception in order to
capture the French intellectual field, thus assuring,
albeit briefly, that existentialism would dominate.
Sartre and Beauvoir attempted to influence the
reception of their philosophical perspective on the
American intellectual field as well.
101. Why does the author say that the term
Existentialism is notoriously difficult to
define?
1. it has a varied background
2. an existentialist believes in God
3. it draws from many thinkers
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. Only 2
102. Which of the following statement is true?
a. An existentialist believes in God
b. Existentialism originated in France
c. Existentialists were against freedom as
they thought it was dreadful
d. Existentialism was not accepted by the
Americans
103. The main point that the author makes in the
third paragraph is that:
a. France was the cultural capital of the
world
b. the existentialists were considered as
erratic, left- bank bohemians.
c. the portrayal in the media of existentialism
created misunderstandings about
intellectuals
d. Existentialism was not accepted as a
philosophy for 20 years
104. What word would best replace the word
apotheosise as used in the passage?
a. hypothesised
b. created
c. encouraged
d. glorify
105. It can be concluded from the passage that:
a. the philosophers held the American press
in disdain
b. the philosophers did not bother about what
was written about them in the press
c. the philosophers were satirised in cartoons
d. the philosophers used the press to promote
them selves
106. What would be the best meaning of the line,
Never were we freer than under the German
occupation.
a. the French were free during the German
occupation
b. the French were not free during the
German occupation
c. the French were responsible for their own
fates
d. difficult to say
107. What is the best definition of existentialism,
that can be inferred from the passage?
a. man is what he makes himself and is also
responsible for what he makes of himself
b. to exist is to be
c. man is free but the freedom to choose
causes him anxiety
d. difficult to say
108. Which of the following is not mentioned in the
passage?
a. Albert Camus
b. Wilhelm Nietzsche
c. Bernard Frechtman
d. Rene Cassin
109. What would the best title for the passage?
a. Existentialism
b. The Impact of Existentialism on American
Culture
c. The French existentialist philosophers
d. How the Press Created Existentialism
PASSAGE 2
Man errs, till he has ceased to strive. So sighs the
figure of God in the prologue to Goethes great
poetical drama, Faust. Driven by his boundless
desire for knowledge, the plays erring hero strives
mightily throughout to discover what holds the world
together in its innermost self. Generations of directors
and theatregoers have asked themselves much the
same question when struggling to comprehend this
theatrical Everest.
For Peter Stein, one of Germany most celebrated
directors, staging all 12,111 lines of the world poem
Goethe spent nearly 60 years writing has been his lifelong
dream. Its reputation for being un-performable
began with the writer himself. Goethe described
Faust to his friend and fellow dramatist Friedrich
Schiller as a poetic monstrosity. Largely because of
its unique, uncategorisable second part, no modern
director has ever staged it at one go and in its entirety.
But though he had to wait until his 60s, Mr. Stein
never abandoned his goal. His production at once
became the talk of Germany.
Any fool can stage part one of Faust, said Mr Stein
modestly. And while even he would agree that not
every fool can stage part one well, its themes and
stories are familiar enough. Conceived in the 1 770s,
when Goethe was in the flush of Sturm and Drang
romanticism, part one bursts with ideas and with
youthful exuberance. It is also dramatically original
and psychologically brilliant.
Mephistopheles appears to a disillusioned Faust and
offers to be his servant, revealing to him all earthly
knowledge. The catch is that, in the next world, they
will switch roles. Faust takes the offer. Yet he is
hungry also for power and pleasure. Two souls do
dwell, alas, within my breast!, he says. He errs badly,
and philosophical drama becomes human tragedy.
Faust seduces Gretchen, an innocent girl, who is
executed for killing their illegitimate child. Faust also
causes the death of her mother and brother.
Yet the cause of all this suffering himself survives for
part twoGoethe needed no lesson from
Hollywoodand it is here that the difficulties begin.
Most directors, simply give up before the challenge of
the second part, and it is not hard to see why. Its range
of subject matter, its mixture of genres and its varieties
of tone make it a challenge to read, let alone to pull
together into a coherent piece of theatre. It took Mr
Stein decades to understand, though now, he says, he
reads it like a newspaper.
Maybe so, but Bild Zeitung it is not. There is virtually
no storyline, no unity of time or place and no limit to
the spiritual and intellectual conundrums with which
Goethes luxuriant imagination confronts his
wandering heir. The poet here sums up his personal
religion, depicting a complex, imperfect deity that is
humorous, cynical and kind. At the same time, part
two is worldly and comic, bringing in Goethes learned
scientific interests as well as his wide-ranging
historical and economic opinions. Topics include paper
currency, artificial life, Norse and classical myth as
well as the restless quest for technical progress.
Quite apart from what it all means, there are several
practical facts that until now have killed any attempt at
professional staging. The full play lasts 2l hours,
including breaks. Counting stage time alone, it runs for
15 hours. (A comparable tour-de-force is Richard
Wagners four-opera Ring cycle, which runs from
14 to 17 hours). At Hanover, audiences have a choice
of a two-day Faust marathon at weekends or six
sessions on consecutive nights. The play also needs a
huge performance space and a committed group of
actors. Mr Steins 35 actors have signed on to his
Faust project for the duration.
As guide ropes in scaling this peak, Mr Stein chose to
stick to the text and to follow Goethes own stage
directions. This refusal to impose an interpretation of
his own provoked the critics, but made theatrical
sense. When Mephistopheles first appears to Faust, he
is disguised as a black poodle, and a real black dog
trots on stage, wagging his tail in a deceptively
undevilish way. In part two, as Faust speaks the lines,
I watch a mirror here of mans whole story, Goethe
called for a rainbow, and Mr Steins designer artfully
obliges.
The production is a feast for the eye, even if Ferdinand
Wogerbauers part one set, as some have complained,
is too safely conventional. The book-lined study at the
beginning in which Faust glumly ponders his life is lit
by a single gothic window. When Faust and
Mephistopheles enter the witchs kitchen, she is a truly
ugly Halloween witch. Stefan Mayers design for the
second part is, suitably enough, more abstract and does
not follow to the last detail Goethes instructions for
leafy groves and rocky caverns.
For theatregoers, it is all an exhilarating experience
and not as wearing as it sounds. Mr Stein has used two
stages in a large hall in Hanovers Expo zoo
compound. The audience moves from stage to stage
after each interval. A nice air of theatrical communism
prevails. In the masked carnival and in the imperial
banquet scenes, the audience becomes part of the play.
After watching it over two days, this reviewer at least
felt as if the actors had become old friends.
Most of them performed at a high level throughout, an
astonishing display of expressive talent and stamina.
Mr Stein split the roles of Faust and Mephistopheles in
two, Bruno Ganz and Christian Nickel were to share
playing Faust. But Mr Ganz, one of the finest Germanspeaking
actors, hurt himself in rehearsal. For now, the
relatively unknown Mr Nickel must handle the entire
role. Given that he is on stage for six of the plays 15
hours, he can perhaps be forgiven for a somewhat
uneven performance. The two actors playing
Mephistopheles have a different problem. One is
brilliant, funny and cynical the other is graver and
more earnest. Dorothee Hartinger as Gretchen is a little
too sparkly and charming for the plain girl she is
supposed to play.
110. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Goethe spent almost 60 years in writing
Faust
b. Faust agrees to trade souls with
Mephistopheles in the next birth
c. Faust is an epic poem
d. Faust is a true story of a German doctor
111. What would be the best meaning for the line,
Two souls do dwell, alas, within my breast?
a. Faust had two souls
b. Faust was confused and thus erred badly
c. Faust was caught up between two
conflicting desires
d. Every man has two natures, one for earthly
knowledge and the other for power and
pleasure
112. Why is it considered difficult to stage the
second part of Faust?
I. it has a wide range of subject matter
II. it is a mixture of genres -
III it is difficult is difficult to read and
understand
a. Only I and II
b. Only II and III
c. Only I and III
d. I, II and III
113. What would be the best meaning of lour de
force mentioned in the passage?
a. a long tour lasting 14-17 hours
b. a forceful display of ideas
c. a feat of strength or skill
d. a play having a forceful impact
114. Which of the following statements are true?
a. Mephistopheles is a black poodle in the
play
b. Mr Stein did not follow the instructions of
Goethe
c. The sets for the two parts are designed by
different designers
d. none of the above
115. Why did it make theatrical sense to follow
Goethes our stage dissections?
a. it would keep the play authentic
b. it would help in keeping with what Goethe
originally meant
c. it would not have provoked the critics
d. it was what Mr Stein wanted to do
116. Which of the following are NOT defects of the
play, as mentioned in the passage?
I. Gretchen in too sparkly and charming
II. the audience becomes part of the play
III. the role of Mephistopheles has been split
in two.
a. Only I
b. Only II
c. I & III
d. I, II and III
117. What does the author want to emphasise when
he says that an air of theatrical communism
prevails?
a. the audience and the actors become as one
b. there is much confusion in the play
c. the workers and the viewers are treated as
one
d. there is no difference among the actors and
the audience
118. The passage could best be described as:
a. An excerpt from a literary magazine
b. A review of Faust
c. An attempt to explain Faust
d. Praise the director who has attempted the
impossible
PASSAGE-3
The world renowned management guru and the
originator of the concept of core competence, C.K.
Prahalad, explains that the concept was born when the
management world was flooded with improvement
ideas arising from the TQM genre and Reengineering.
What Prahalad and Gary Hamel argue is that while
these measures may lead to better or improved
management, the quest for competitiveness has to
primarily come from different strategies to be pursued.
They call this the strategic intent. How are these
strategies to be formed?
A distinction has to be drawn between products and
competencies. While a product is the resultant of
various inputs that are organised in an efficient
manner, competencies are grown from within. They
cannot be just organised but will have to be built over
a period of time. While products primarily require
facilities, competencies are a combination of people
with the requisite know-how acquisition. Thus,
competitiveness born out of product superiority can
easily be eroded when competitors improve their
products. On the other hand, competitiveness born out
of ingrained competencies can stay longer.
The picture before the after the Second World War is
proof of the above concept. Even though the physical
facilities were all devastated, because of basic
competencies, the people of Germany and Japan could
rebuild the economy in no time. The wheel has come a
full circle by the end of the century when they are on
the top again! During the 80s, Canon and Honda grew
enormously compared to Xerox and Chrysler. Through
the adoption of the improvement method competitors
quickly reach comparable standards. What then can
still provide the competitive edge? This is where the
advantage is to be generated through managements
ability to consolidate technologies and production
skills into competencies that enable individual
businesses to seize quickly the changing opportunities.
Core competencies, according to Prahiad, are the
collective learning in the organisation, especially how
to co-ordinate diverse production skills and integrate
multiple streams of technologies.
Often, there is difficulty in identifying what is a
companys core competence. Of course, what it is not
can perhaps be more easily perceived. It is not merely
vertically integrating the business, thereby making
everything under one roof: It is not merely using
common plant or services facility or sales force.
Hamel and Prahalad suggest 3 tests. (1) Core
competence provides potential access to a wide variety
of markets; (2) it should make a significant
contribution to the perceived customer benefits of the
end product and (3) it should be difficult for
competitors to imitate. It has been estimated that few
companies can build world leadership in more than 5
or 6 fundamental competencies. In the Indian scene, it
is easy to see that companies like Sundarani Fasteners,
Reliance and Bajaj Auto which have figured in the
Asias top 20 companies list have indeed built their
fortunes based on their core competencies. But the
picture is not all that clear with regard to other.
Is it the reason why they are not competitive globally?
The answer is not all that easy. A criticism that is
levelled is that the Indian business houses are far too
diversified and not focused. The counter-point to. the
Prahaladian doctrine has come from Prof. Palepu of
the Harvard. Business School who says that
diversification is not strategically incorrect in this era
of core competence. He argues that core competence is
a Western concept and that Asias large business
groups can nurture non-conventional competencies. He
says that diversification in a group can be combined
with focus in a company. His main contention is that
any organisation is a function of the markets around it.
Since markets always dont work in developing
economies like in the Western world, institutional
mechanisms do not exist on their own and this is
precisely provided by large, diversified business
groups. The five institutional elements identified are
(I) the market in which a company sells its goods and
services to its consumers; (2) the market in which it
gets talent into its companies; (3) the market where it
raises its financial resources; (4) the market for
contracts or the legal system which binds contracts or
the legal system which binds contracts and (5) the
degree of government intervention. According to
Palepu, the big business groups actually create these
institutions as their core competencies.
More often these are intangible and are expensive to
build and can only be attempted by large business
houses. However, he also mentions that this institution
building will take at least 2 or 3 decades after which
the core competency concept may become more
applicable.
When we consider the above concept, it fits in very
well with the present day need of the tremendous
infrastructure problems which the government by itself
is just unable to cope with. The idea of large business
houses entering into this infrastructure area is
considered to be a necessary one, though it may run
completely contrary to the idea of core competencies.
It would appear that it is not all that easy for Indian
companies to merely follow the concept of core
competence. A new formula has to be hammered into
shape as to what core competencies to identify and
develop and what institutional mechanisms are to be
evolved. This will indeed be the turning point. Some
examples do exist in this context from the Asian
Tigers, who have not been studied in as great a depth
as Western corporations. We are indeed at cross roads
and the turning may well be a truly Indian solution to
myriad Indian problems.
119. What is strategic intent, according to the
passage?
a. TQM genre was responsible for the birth
of the concept of core competence
b. The measures may lead to better or
improved management
c. Different strategies have to be followed to
reach the quest for competitiveness
d. Re-engineering is also the reason for the
concept of core competence
120. What, according to the passage, is the
difference between product and competencies?
a. products are technological but
competencies depends on people
b. competencies have to be shaped and
developed but products have to be made
c. products are efficient use of resources, but
competencies are human resources and
know how
d. products and competencies are the same,
only the approach is different
121. What is the central idea of the passage?
a. An explanation of core competence
b. Coping with complex managerial
challenges
c. How to apply core competence to Indian
industry
d. Trends in modern management thought
122. The proof of core competence after the Second
World War is that
a. the Germans and the Japanese rebuilt their
economy though the physical facilities
were all destroyed and they are on the top
again
b. Canon and Honda grew enormously
compared to Xerox and Chrysler
c. many Japanese companies became world
leaders
d. technologies were consolidated into
competencies to take advantage of
changing opportunities
123. Which of the following are the evaluation tests
for core competence?
I. opening up of access to a wide variety of
markets
II. significant contribution to customer
benefits of the end product
III. difficulty in being imitated
IV. that no company is able to build global
leadership in more than 5 or 6 fundamental
competencies
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. II and IV
d. I, II and III
124. What is the title for the passage?
a. Prahlad and Gary Hamels New Creed
b. Identifying and developing core
competencies
c. Infrastructure Development and Core
Competence
d. The Prahaladian doctrine
125. Palepu of Harvard Business School:
a. agrees with the concept of core
competence
b. does not agree with the concept of core
competence
c. is indifferent to the concept of core
competence
d. difficult to say
126. The institutional elements according to Prof.
Palepu are
I. selling and service market
II. market for spotting talent for their
companies
III. financial resource market
IV. market for contracts and legal system and
the degree of government intervention
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. II and IV
d. I, II and III
PASSAGE 4
While several discoveries in science ever since people
started engaging in organised research activity have
led to a better life for the average human being, it
cannot be gainsaid that some have been used to cause
untold misery to vast sections. The developments in
science and technology have proved to be a mixed
blessing-marvellous medical discoveries like penicillin
and antibiotics have cured diseases whereas the
fabrication of the atom bomb has resulted in wiping
out entire towns and populations. It all goes to show
that science is a double-edged weapon because it can
be used both for good and evil purposes. Herein comes
the crucial question of ethics. Is it not possible for a
scientist to say no when asked to taken up research
that may one day lead to destruction? This poser has
been troubling the participants in research activity for
decades. Noelle tenoir, who has served as a
chairperson on the International Bioethics Committee
of UNESCO and is now heading the European
Commissions Group of Advisers on the Ethical
Implication so Biotechnology, has done well to
highlight several related issues in the World Science
Report.
While bitter disputes followed the dropping of the
atom bombs over the two Japanese cities of Hiroshima
and Nagasaki in 1945, there was no organised reaction
as such. But the developments in biology like genetic
engineering, which is nothing but a process of
modifying living organisms, led to an ethics movement
even three decades ago. Significantly enough, a
conference of geneticists meeting at Azilomar in the
U.S. declared a moratorium on research for one year,
providing a pause for understanding the possible risks
to human health and the environment as a result of
using genetically-modified organisms. During the I
960s, ethics panels were setup in several countries but
France was the first country to establish a national
consultative committee for ethics in the life and health
sciences. A survey made three years ago by the
UNESCO Bioethics Unit pointed to the functioning of
more than 200 national ethics committees all over the
world. It is interesting to learn that there is now a
discernible movement from ethics to law with the aim
of protecting human rights faced with the challenge of
science and technology. Again, it is worth noting that
the Ubter parliamentary Union placed the issue of the
links between bioethics and human rights on its
agenda. Essentially, the objective of these efforts is to
affirm that the human being is not a mere object for
science.
127. Why are developments in science a doubleedged
weapon?
a. they have resulted in both harmless and
harmful things
b. they have been beneficial and destructive
c. they have developed without ethics
d. none of the above
128. Why did the scientists declare a moratorium
on research for one year?
I. to study the risks to human health
II. to study the risks to environment
III. to debate about ethical issues
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I, II and III
129. Based on the above passage, we can say that
the author feels that:
a. scientists should refuse to do research on
destructive things
b. ethics committees should be established
c. human beings are not objects for science
d. None of the above.
130. The article is most probably written by a:
a. scientist
b. social activist
c. newspaper reporter
d. cannot say
131. The tone of the article is:
a. analytical
b. critical
c. descriptive
d. judgmental
132. Why was there no organised reaction to the
nuclear bombs dropped on Hiroshima,
according to the writer?
a. people did not feel strongly against them
b. there were no ethics committees
established at that time
c. the world was too shocked to respond
d. none of the above
133. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. there are more than 200 national ethics
committees all over the world
b. scientists have declared a declared a
moratorium on research for one year
c. bitter disputes followed the dropping of
the atom bombs
d. there is a movement for protecting human
rights
134. What is the best title of the passage?
a. Ethics and scientific research
b. Human beings and scientific research
c. Science is a double-edged weapon
d. Protection of human rights
PASSAGE 5
On a personal level, winning doesnt mean the other
guy has to lose. As former P&G; brand manager Bruce
Miller put in, Its not a zero-sum game. Its more like
golf than tennis, you are playing against yourself and
the course, not the guy across the net or in the next
office. Play your best game and, if its good enough,
youll be a winner. You might not achieve the specific
goal you have set, but the company is big enough and
flexible enough to move you up and onward in a way
that suits your talents. Thats winning.
Miller remembers the story of an assistant brand
manager who, by his own account, was achieving great
things and looked as if he had the world by the tail,
At about the time his class was ready to go out on
sales training, he had a closed- door meeting with his
boss. His peers assumed he was the first to get the nod.
It turned out his performance had all along been more
flash than substance, and the meeting with his boss
was to discuss other career alternatives inside or
outside the company. Miller is convinced that the
moral of the story is that winning is all about your own
performance and not about keeping up with what the
other guy seems to be doing.
Former CEO ED Artzt equates winning with
professionalism: Its mastery of the fundamentals. And
thats what you must do to win in management. You
must master the fundamentals of the business youre
in, the functions you perform, and the process of
managing people. If you dont do that, youll
eventually become a journey man or journey woman,
and the brilliance you once had will surely tarnish.
Mastering the fundamentals of any profession, be it in
the arts, sports, or business, requires great sacrifice,
endless repetition, and a constant search for the best
way to do things. A professional in search of mastery
brings an attitude to his or her work that no sacrifice is
too great and no experience or grunt work is too
menial if it helps achieve mastery of the fundamentals.
It all begins with attitude, striving to attain
professionalism and embracing winning as a way of
life. if you want to become a winning manager, I urge
you to embrace that attitude with all your might.
135. What does Miller mean when he says that
winning is not a zero sum game?
a. it does not mean that the other guy has to
lose
b. you are playing against yourself
c. its more like golf than tennis
d. the company is big enough to move you
up
136. By more flash than substance, the author
means:
a. the achievement was temporary, not
lasting
b. the achievement was more a matter of
chance
c. the manager was fooling himself
d. none of the above
137. A journeyman or journey woman:
I. is not a master of fundamentals
II. is just passing time
III. is not brilliant
a. I and II
b. I, II and III
c. I and III
d. II and III
138. The author feels that:
a. mastering fundamentals is essential to win
b. mastering fundamentals requires great
sacrifice
c. winning is not a zero sum game
d. none of the above
139. The best title for the passage could be:
a. Winning
b. Winning and Professionalism
c. Getting a Winners Attitude
d. Mastering Fundamentals is Important
140. The author is most likely to be a:
a. management consultant
b. newspaper reporter
c. writer of self help books
d. career counsellor
PASSAGE 6
Hunger is about people. It is also about oppression and
inequalities. Hunger is about corrupt politicians and
corrupt bureaucracy; it is also about power and
powerlessness. Hunger is about borrowed ideas of
science and technology and development which have
not worked in local realities; it is also about the
disintegration of local communities; about loss of
values, traditions; culture and spirituality. Ending
hunger is the important unfinished agenda of this
century and of independent India.
The world as a whole has achieved dramatic increase
in food production, enough to cover the minimum
needs of the global population. Yet hunger and
malnutrition persist in alarming measure in India and
other third World countries. The World Banks
estimates are that over a billion people in the world
have problems of food security. The Food and
Agricultural Organisation (FAO) estimates point out
that 64 developing countries out of 117 will be unable
to feed their population adequately and that 38 out of
these developing countries will be able to feed less
than half o ftheir populations adequately.
India believes that its problems of hunger and food
security are almost over because of the significant
increase in productivity achieved through the use of
new technologies of the Green Revolution. Foodgrains
per capital increased from 395 grains in 195 Ito 466
grams in 1993. There are reports about surplus stocks
used for exports; also reports about surplus stocks
rotting because there are not enough storing facilities.
And yet in such a situation, we have millions who go
hungry and who die a silent death of starvation and
malnutrition. In 1974 the FAO organised the first
World Food Conference, where its members took a
pledge to end hunger by 1984. Henry Kissinger, than
US Secretary of State vowed at the meeting that
within a decade, no man, woman or child will go to
bed hungry. A quarter of a century later more people
are dying of hunger.
FAO organised its second World Food security
Conference in 1985 which reaffirmed its moral
commitment to achieve the objective of ensuring that
all people at all times are in a position to produce the
basic food they need. In 1996, yet again, FAO
organised its third global conference on food security
with much fanfare. The result of this third summit
meeting was another declaration, called the Rome
Declaration, affirming once again the right of everyone
to be free of hunger. The summit also offered an action
plan to reduce the numbers of hungry people by half
within two decades a more modest commitment
than made by Kissinger a quarter of a century ago.
In spite of the three global conferences, the future of
food security looks as bleak as ever. Fidel Castro, who
was also as attending the third FAO summit meeting,
pointed out Hunger is the off-spring of injustice, and
the unequal distribution of the wealth of his world.
Social and economic surplus have actually
marginsalised the poor and deprived them of the
means to eat.
The NGOs and peoples representatives who had also
gathered for this summit meeting said in their final
declaration, Ensuring food security demands an
approach to agriculture policy that is in almost every
respect the reverse of that adopted by the Summits
delegates. They suggested that instead of pursuing
policies that encourage corporate agriculture, there
should be policies in laboured organic production,
reducing or eliminating the use of pesticides and other
agro-chemicals.
And instead of hooking farmers into a global
economy over which they have no control, they
suggested that resources be shifted in favour of local
farming and regional food producers and food systems.
141. According to the World Bank, how many
people face problems of food scarcity?
a. 2 million
b. 100 million
c. 500 million
d. l000 million
142. What had led India to believe that it does not
face any food crisis?
a. The presence. of surplus tocks of exports
b. Report about surplus stocks rotting
c. The apparent success of the Green
Revolution
d. Both (a) and (c)
143. Why did the third FAO summit moderate the
pledge made by Kissinger in the first summit?
a. Because Kissingers promise was too
ambitious.
b. Because in reality, it is never possible
eliminate hunger and poverty from the
world.
c. Because Kissingers promise had started
to look unattainable as more and more
people were dying out of hunger.
d. Because FAOs resources to eliminate
poverty were limited.
144. What is the major point in the NGOs stand
after the third FAO summit?
a. The agriculture policy adopted by the
Summits delegate will never lead to food
security.
b. Farmers should be provided security first
to achieve food security for the world.
c. Local farming should be encouraged more
d. Change pattern of agriculture from
corporate agriculture to policies that
favour the farmer.
145. All the following are instances of commercial
agriculture EXCEPT
a. usage of pesticides
b. usage of agrochemicals
c. inorganic production
d. regional food producers and food systems
146. What is the basic paradox of Indias food
system?
a. That is spite of being a Third World
country, it has enough food surplus
b. That in spite of food surplus, several
people die annually
c. That spite of large-scale food production,
the farmers are all poor
d. Both 2 and 3
147. What, according to the author, is the basic
cause of hunger?
a. faulty agricultural policy
b. lack of purchasing power
c. faulty governmental policies
d. inequality and powerlessness
148. The author says all the following EXCEPT
a. Per capita availability of food grains has
decreased from 1951 to 1993 in India,
b. FAOs promises in its summits have
mostly gone unfulfilled.
c. Fidel Castro is a communist leader.
d. Hunger and malnutrition constitute a
serious impending crisis to the world.
149. The author definitely says which of the
following in the context of the passage?
a. Hunger is caused, at least in part, due to
implementation of borrowed scientific
ideas.
b. Several Third World countries are in the
process of eliminating hunger.
c. Green Revolution was based on borrowed
technology.
d. As of now, there seems to be a new
direction to acquire food security.
150. How does the author corroborate the third
sentence of the passage?
a. By pointing to inadequacies of the policies
of the government.
b. By pointing to the failed promises of FAO.
c. By pointing to the words of Fidel Castro.
d. By pointing to the resolution adopted by
the NGOs.
SECTION