Ashish Sahu's post

in Averages, Percentages, Profit Loss and Interest
Updated 5 months ago

Can anybody help me solve this question, I guess my answer is incorrect?

Post 80330015507252
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Skybreaker
@Skybreaker  ·  7 karma

If your answer is 20%, then it is correct.

If 40% of female employees are NOT managers, it mathematically implies that 60% of female employees are managers. So we have, say, x male employees and y female employees. x/10 are male managers, 6y/10 are female managers. And total number of managers is 3(x+y)/10. So we have x/10 + 6y/10 = 3(x+y)/10 Which gives us x/y = 3/2 So if we have 30 male employees, we have 20 female employees. And we have 15 managers in total : 3 male managers and 12 female managers. So 20% of the managers are male. PS: I have assumed here that there are only two genders.
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Skybreaker
@Skybreaker  ·  7 karma

If 40% of female employees are NOT managers, then 60% of them ARE managers. That is the crux of the question, in my opinion.

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