Last RC about greek music and Aristotle one, the 22nd question explanation is worong in my opinion. Can someone better explain it as in 2nd paragraph it is mentioned that Plato and Aristotle considered dance accompanying music to be exceedingly coarse and tasteless.

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Apjoshua64
@Apjoshua64IIFT  ·  3,958 karma

 In fact, Plato and Aristotle considered music in which the lyre and flute played alone and not as the accompaniment of dance or song to be ‘exceedingly coarse and tasteless’.  So they meant exactly the opposite :)

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maxwayne
@maxwayne  ·  75 karma

Got it! Thanks bro!!!

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